.. Yes. By Locke's definition, you can say... So maybe by Locke's definition, the Native Americans could have claimed a property right in the land itself.
是的,按照洛克的定义,你可以说。,也许按照洛克的定义,印第安人可以宣称拥有对该土地的财产权。
As much land as a man tills, plants, improves, cultivates and can use the product of, so much is his property " He by his labor encloses it from the commons."
一个人能耕耘,播种,改良,栽培多少土地,和能用多少土地的产品,这多少土地就是他的财产,这就像是他用他的劳动从公地圈来的那样“
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