.. Yes. By Locke's definition, you can say... So maybe by Locke's definition, the Native Americans could have claimed a property right in the land itself.
是的,按照洛克的定义,你可以说。,也许按照洛克的定义,印第安人可以宣称拥有对该土地的财产权。
If you had five slaves and a good piece of land in Alabama in 1820, you might very likely have fifty slaves and a hell of a lot more land a decade later.
820年,如果你在阿拉巴马州,拥有五个奴隶和一块肥沃的土地,十年后你很可能就会拥有五十个奴隶,以及更多的土地
At the same time, he is saying that just by picking an acorn or taking an apple or maybe killing a buffalo on a certain amount of land, that makes it yours because it's your labor and your labor would enclose that land.
同时,洛克说只要在特地土地拾得橡果或摘下苹果,或杀一头水牛,你就拥有了这块土地,因为这是你的劳动,你通过劳动圈定了这块土地。
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